"Canada, Europe, Japan, USA, one of these things does not belong.
...
Lets see, Three are fairly homogenous societies, one is not."Please define what you mean by "homogeneous" (what I assume you meant to say).
And "society".
Hmm. Europe is not "a society", I'm afraid. Europe is many societies. No one with an iota of knowledge and understanding of history, geography, etc. would refer to "Europe" as "a society". The last thing that Europe is, is homogeneous. Nor, of course, are many of the multiple societies that make up Europe in any meaningful way "homogeneous" themselves.
I'll assume that you think that the US is the
one that is not a homogeneous society.
We've disposed of "Europe".
Now, one might fairly accurately call Japan a "homogeneous" society. One more down.
And Canada? Do you seriously believe that Canada, the society closest to your own in so many senses of the word, the one you might actually be expected to know something about, is "homogeneous"?
One does get tired of giving this lesson, but it just seems to be so necessary.
The 2001 census showed that 16% of Canada's population was born outside Canada. Homogeneous? "More" homogeneous? The figure was a little under 10% in the US, last time I looked.
http://www.statcan.ca/english/Pgdb/demo28a.htmOf Canada's ~30 million population (over 11 million of whom self-identified as being of "Canadian" ethnic origin, leaving under 18 million responses to be divided among the other possibilities), over 1 million are of North American Indian origin; over 1 million are of Chinese ethnic origin - 5.5% of those who stated a specific origin; over 1 million are of Ukrainian ethnic origin; nearly 3/4 of a million are of Indian origin; and so on.
http://www.statcan.ca:80/english/Pgdb/demo43k.htmIn Toronto, over 10% of those who stated an origin other than "Canadian" are of Chinese origin; 9% East Indian; 1% or a little more as each of Guyanese, Iranian, West Indian, Pakistani, Korean, Vietnamese. Fewer than half of those who stated an origin other than "Canadian" said that their origin was English, Irish or Scottish. ... pretty damned "homogeneous", eh?
Any idea what the comparative figures are for the US? Less "homogeneous", do you think? I don't.
Ever noticed that Canada was, at its very origin, very precisely *not* homogeneous -- that it was a state formed of two peoples, with distinct languages, religions, legal systems and cultural practices? The fact that one didn't set about subjugating/assimilating the other, as a matter of public policy, was the bonus, of course.
http://www12.statcan.ca/english/census01/Products/Analytic/companion/rel/canada.cfmThen there are the 16% of Canadians who report "no religion", the 2% who are Muslim, the 1% who are Hindu and 1% who are Buddhist, and so on. Do something fewer than 72% of the US population identify themselves as Christian -- which would make the US less "homogeneous" in this sense?
In France, nearly 5% of the population is foreign-born, from what I can see on a quick search; in Germany, the figure seems to be slightly higher. Differences in status-granting procedures make comparisons difficult. In the UK 2001 census, 87.5% (7/8) of people in England and Wales self-identified as "white British"; 2% as Indian, over 2% as belonging to one of the Black groups -- some areas were over 10% Black Caribbean, others over 10% Black African -- and so on; overall, 9% of respondents were of "minority ethnic groups". Source countries for immigration to European nations are no longer mainly other European nations; and most have become "countries of immigration" rather than "countries of emigration" as they were in the past -- they are destinations for immigrants, not places which emigrants leave to go somewhere else. These phenomena are now of sufficiently long standing that they have to be factored into any social/ethnic comparison with the US.
"Three have a fairly equitable distribution of wealth among the populace in general, one concentrates it most of its wealth in a tiny minority."While there are very certainly greater wealth disparities in the US than in Canada, Japan and most European countries, this is really just a tiny bit of an overstatement of the case (if I may be permitted an understatement of my own in return). The distribution of wealth is not, properly speaking, at all "equitable" in the case of those three.
http://www.policyalternatives.ca/publications/ragsandrichessummary.htmlhttp://www.lcurve.org/In the US, "The top one percent are now estimated to own between forty and fifty percent of the nation's wealth, more than the combined wealth of the bottom 95%", while in Canada, "The wealthiest ten percent of family units held 53 percent of the wealth in 1999. The wealthiest 50 percent of family units controlled an almost unbelievable 94.4 percent of the wealth, leaving only 5.6 percent for the bottom 50 percent". The disparity is indeed greater -- a direct comparison isn't possible from these figures alone, but the top >1% in the US may control what the top <10% controls in Canada, i.e. something under half of all wealth -- but greater *total wealth* in the US certainly makes up for some of the disparity, in terms of the absolute wealth available to the lower-wealth population segments.
http://www.odci.gov/cia/publications/factbook/fbhome.html(Gini indexes for each country)
http://www.science.mcmaster.ca/Psychology/dalywilson/iiahr2001.pdfThe difference when we look instead at income disparity (which is more meaningful here than wealth disparity), is significant, but not as significant as the difference between the US and, say, Russia or South Africa.
"One has severe disparities among its populous in regards to race, wealth, and the distribution of that wealth. Wonder which one that is?"I dunno, you've lost me. First, by grossly overstating your case in the case of wealth distribution (and not really saying anything at all about "disparaties in regards to wealth" as distinct from "disparities in regards to distribution of wealth" -- are you saying what might in some cases be true, there is more absolute poverty in the US?). And second, by completely misstating the facts in the case of "race", especially when we consider that "race" must be accompanied by, in particular, religion, ethnicity and place of birth when considering the real extent of the kind of diversity that needs to be considered in making such comparisons.
So, all in all ...
"I guess what I am really trying to say is that the USA is more comparable to some of the 'bad' countries in the 'second and third world' than the predominately white Eurocentric 'first world' that most people describe as the 'western world'. There are more socio-economic parallels between the US and Mexico, than the US and Canada."... you have a glimmering of a point, I'd say. The one about income disparity, if you care to make that point.
Your characterization of the rest of us out here as "Eurocentric" is really just simply bizarre, in this day and age and for quite some time now.
In point of fact, the main way in which "There are more socio-economic parallels between the US and Mexico, than the US and Canada" is quite simply that the US shares a culture of violence with countries in which there are
severe socioeconomic disparities, regardless of the presence of marked social/ethnic diversity, that is not shared by countries with
marked social/ethnic diversity but without those severe socioeconomic disparities.
Diversity is apparently *not* consistently strongly correlated with violence; disparity, on the other hand, is. As to what conclusion anyone might draw from the facts on disparity and violence, for instance ... what is causal, what is consequential, and to what degree ... well, to each his/her own, I suppose.
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