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AlanCranston Donating Member (166 posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat May-28-11 10:47 PM
Original message
did anyone know that before 1967...
states had the option of choosing whether they wanted to have single member districts or to elect their representatives at large in the same way as the senate? Some states had a few single member districts and some at large. They were also allowed to draw the districts as they saw fit. In Texas, there was a district with about 220,000 people around Abilene and a district with about 950,000 people in Dallas. It was even worse in the state legislatures. Eventually the court system intervened and mandated that all districts have equal population and that all districts must be single member.

What do you think would happen if the courts had never intervened on this? Its scary to think how deep of shit we would be in as far as congressional and legislative races are concerned.
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WheelWalker Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat May-28-11 11:10 PM
Response to Original message
1. I don't know about 1967... I thought Reynolds v. Sims in 1964
enunciated the doctrine of "one person, one vote"?
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AlanCranston Donating Member (166 posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sun May-29-11 12:29 PM
Response to Reply #1
2. the court case was in 1964
but they said that the existing boundaries could be used for the 1964 election. In 1965, they would have to redraw the lines for the 1966 elections.
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