General Discussion
Related: Editorials & Other Articles, Issue Forums, Alliance Forums, Region Forums1789, let's look back....
Only white males with property could vote, IIRC
Slavery
Women could not vote. I'm not sure about owning property, anyone ?
LGBT rights ? Non-existent.
Native Americans ? Routinely slaughtered.
Jewish people ? Discriminated against.
White supremacy ? In full force.
Feel free to correct me and add to this list.
My point ? We've made huge progress in 225 years (took way too damn long), and hopefully within my lifetime, much more progress.
Right Wing and Republicans lurking, chew on all THAT!
steve2470
(37,457 posts)Initech
(100,083 posts)Lionel Mandrake
(4,076 posts)Between 1607 and 1789:
Witch hunts and -trials were still possible.
There was no Bill of Rights.
Colonists were taxed by, but had no representation in, Parliament.
Someone who is more knowledgeable than I am about colonial history could probably add to this list.
When the Constitution became the law of the land in 1789, U.S. citizens could point to the tremendous progress they had made since the establishment of the British colonies. But they also knew that some intractable problems had been swept under the rug in a spirit of compromise.
steve2470
(37,457 posts)Spider Jerusalem
(21,786 posts)And British subjects had considerably more rights and more liberty than pretty much anyone else, anywhere, in the mid-18th century. (Worthy of note: the taxes levied on the colonies were lower than those levied in Britain, where most of the population also had no representation - the franchise being variously restricted; Manchester and Birmingham didn't have MPs until the Great Reform Act of 1832).
Lionel Mandrake
(4,076 posts)was influenced by the English Bill of Rights, which, as you pointed out, came a full century earlier.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_Bill_of_Rights
The situation in England, where (as you pointed out) most of the population had no representation, was quite different from that in America before 1776, where none of the population had representation.
Spider Jerusalem
(21,786 posts)The English Bill of Rights applied to the British subjects resident in the colonies, as well. And, no, the situation wasn't really all that different; that the residents of the colonies should be taxed (in the form of duties on tea, tobacco, printed matter, etc) is not any different to the residents of Manchester and Birmingham being taxed when neither had parliamentary representation. Nor is it especially different to residents of the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the US Virgin Islands, and American Samoa being subject to federal tax whilst not being represented by a voting member of Congress.
Lionel Mandrake
(4,076 posts)Or at least, 1776 is as good a date as any. Lincoln put it rather well in 1863, when he said "Four score and seven years ago our fathers brought forth on this continent a new nation ... ". Let's see, what's 1863 minus 87? Why, it's 1776.
Did the residents of Manchester or Birmingham contemplate declaring independence? Did they consider themselves to be a new nation? Or for that matter, did residents of the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the US Virgin Islands, or American Samoa consider themselves a new nation? That's one difference. Another is the size of the group lacking representation compared to that of the mother country.
Regions owned by the U.S. other than D.C. can gain representation, if they want it, by becoming states, as Alaska and Hawaii did in the 20th century. Puerto Rico may become the 51st state. A recent poll shows a majority of Puerto Ricans in favor of this option. They do not wish independence from the U.S.
treestar
(82,383 posts)Boarding - whatever it was that gave rise to the Third Amendment - Quartering
LordGlenconner
(1,348 posts)In WW2 and also in Vietnam.
While I'm appalled at what has happened, it does have a bit of an "outrage of the week" feel to it for those of us who are aware of history.
steve2470
(37,457 posts)Can you imagine our history without it ? It would be very grim indeed.
frogmarch
(12,154 posts)Below are excerpts from an article by Marylynn Salmon, author of Women and the Law of Property in Early America (1989) and The Limits of Independence: American Women, 17601800 (1998).
State law rather than federal law governed womens rights in the early republic. The authority of state law meant that much depended upon where a woman lived and the particular social circumstances in her region of the country.
...
In every state, the legal status of free women depended upon marital status. Unmarried women, including widows, were called femes soles, or women alone. They had the legal right to live where they pleased and to support themselves in any occupation that did not require a license or a college degree restricted to males. Single women could enter into contracts, buy and sell real estate, or accumulate personal property, which was called personalty. It consisted of everything that could be movedcash, stocks and bonds, livestock, and, in the South, slaves. So long as they remained unmarried, women could sue and be sued, write wills, serve as guardians, and act as executors of estates. These rights were a continuation of the colonial legal tradition. But the revolutionary emphasis on equality brought some important changes in womens inheritance rights. State lawmakers everywhere abolished primogeniture and the tradition of double shares of a parents estate, inheritance customs that favored the eldest son. Instead, equal inheritance for all children became the rulea big gain for daughters.
...
Marriage changed womens legal status dramatically. When women married, as the vast majority did, they still had legal rights but no longer had autonomy. Instead, they found themselves in positions of almost total dependency on their husbands which the law called coverture. As the English jurist William Blackstone famously put it in his Commentaries on English Law (17651769):
By marriage, the husband and wife are one person in the law: that is, the very being or legal existence of the woman is suspended during the marriage, or at least is incorporated and consolidated into that of the husband: under whose wing, protection, and cover, she performs every thing.
Coverture was based on the assumption that a family functioned best if the male head of a household controlled all of its assets. As a result, a married woman could not own property independently of her husband unless they had signed a special contract called a marriage settlement. Such contracts were rare and even illegal in some parts of the country. In the absence of a separate estate, all personality a woman brought to her marriage or earned during marriage, including wages, became her husbands. He could manage it or give it away, as he chose, without consulting her.
Much more at the link. Interesting!
steve2470
(37,457 posts)steve2470
(37,457 posts)Response to steve2470 (Original post)
Recursion This message was self-deleted by its author.
steve2470
(37,457 posts)also, unions were few and far between.
AFAIK, very few protections for working people.
No Social Security.
The mentally ill were treated very horribly.
HEY REPUBLICANS AND CONSERVATIVES, read this entire thread. These are the good old days ? Yea right.