....so them dropping chemical warfare bombs on themselves is unlikely.
Also unlikely a Syrian air strike on rebel chemical storage would result in what happened.


Experts say the explosion resulting from an air strike on a chemical weapons facility would most likely incinerate any agents. Sarin and other nerve agents are also usually stocked in a "binary manner", which means they are kept as two distinct chemical precursors that are combined just before use, either manually or automatically inside a weapon when launched.

I'm playing devil's advocate by asking this question because from what I've seen it looks like Assad is indeed guilty. Especially when their own explanation is said strike on a chemical weapons depot. However it does not rule out a potential other explanation which is that some third party was involved. Perhaps a third party got a hold of and or dropped said weapons. Or was some how involved. Russia for example.

....why on earth would Russia do it?

They could have tested the victims and also the dirt before they shot the missiles.

Just my opinion.

I do not believe the Syrian rebels or ISIS is capable of manufacturing nerve agents, they MAY be able of making chlorine gas.

If it was nerve gas either it was the Syrian government or the Syrian rebels acquired nerve gas from a foreign entity.

Countries known to have or had chemical weapon stockpiles: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chemical_weapon#Countries_with_stockpiles

I think we can safely rule out India, Japan, Iraq, Israel, Russia & the United States, either because the programs are defunct (Iraq & Japan), mostly destroyed (India, Russia & U.S. per treaty) and because I strongly doubt Israel would sell them to Syrian rebels, presuming Israel hasn't already destroyed their chemical weapons.

That leaves Libya, North Korean and Syria: At the time of Gaddafi's removal of power, Libya only had mustard gas; North Korea MIGHT sell them to Syrian rebels, but I think that is unlikely as the Syrian government has worked with NK in the past.

Given the process of elimination given above, the most plausible explanation is that the Syrian government re-started their chemical weapons or hid some from the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons in charge of making sure Syria no longer had chemical weapons.

It does not change the fact that 45 took it upon himself to authorize a military mission for which he does not have the express power to authorize...

There were no emergency circumstances which demanded that an immediate decision be made nor any just cause for not following the established protocol for seeking legislative input/approval.


45's actions are the issue...
& they need to be addressed
independent of /separate from Assad's actions

This is NO different than how he handled
the first Muslim Ban EO which was allegedly soooooo urgent ...,.,
that it had to be implemented immediately & as a complete surprise....

This was about seeing just how much he can get away with before somebody forces him to abide by protocol/ established rules of procedure ...

Obviously it is now known which military leaders will do as they are told and will not question 45's power to authorize...

It is also now apparent that focusing on the emotional aspects of an event/issue ...
can be used to elicit a free pass allowing 45 to authorize the sending of "messages" via military attack...

Just as it is overwhelmingly apparent that either very few people are left in DC that have a fucking clue as to the extent of Executive powers or there are very few who give a damn.

45 ... or whoever happens to be advising him--- will continue to push the envelope until somebody steps in and stops him....

Until that takes place, little donnie will play the part of the big bad dick-tater ... and if he is allowed to play too long there may not be a way to reign him in.