because they are he said/she said charges and the defendant has to be proved guilty by an extremely high evidentiary standard.

How is that argument to be rebutted?

In the US, the defendant must be proved guilty beyond a reasonable doubt.

It would be very hard to prove lack of consent for a sex act following a one-night stand that was admittedly consensual. There is too great a likelihood of buyer's remorse.

I have raised this issue numerous times in response to posts on this matter and never once received a response.

Why is this matter raised over and over and yet my question never answered? Because my question cannot be answered.

The rape may have occurred, but it would be virtually impossible to prove it. Rape is a horrible crime, but so is convicting a person of a crime without having sufficient evidence for it.

Why can't Sweden question Assange in Britain?

It's my opinion that the OP is actually a stealthy Assange supporter, there's really no other reasonable explanation for such an obviously counter productive effort.

It does, however, discredit some claims made repeatedly in the discussions of his case

that the OP is an authoritarian who hates Assange for revealing undemocratic actions committed by the Obama administration.

It might not be the answer, but it makes sense.

but more than one or two on personal attacks?

Aren't their other websites for true crime and gossip?

And I agree with you. The net effect of the flood of anti-Assange posts reminds me of some previous floods we had here in the Bush years, like the "don't talk about closeted gays in the GOP" flood at the time of the Jeff Gannon male prostitute/white house reporter scandal. It stinks of heavy deodorant on flop sweat.